Keiron
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Hoping someone can clarify this for me:

Some British infantry units are in an area with some unattached artillery from the same formation. They are adjacent to some French units (a mix of infantry, cavalry and artillery).

The British artillery bombard the French units and then the infantry assault them. Both sides suffer two step losses.

The British, as the attacker, chooses to retreat to reduce the step losses to one. Per 14.4 (a) as the attacker retreated the defender (the French) also reduce their step losses to one.

Does this mean that the defender has by default chosen to stand, or rather not chosen to retreat per 14.41 and is required to check against it's morale value to see if it stands?


Also, when the British assaulting units retreated they left the unattached artillery units behind (as they did not take part in the assault). I would be correct in thinking that per 14.5 and 20.2, if the French then advance into the area vacated by infantry and cavalry, the artillery would be eliminated?

Thanks.
 
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Keiron
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I've seen another post here on BGG by Brien Miller that suggests that the French would still need to check to stand per 14.41 even if the British (Attacker) retreats.

So it is eminently possible that if both the Attacker and Defender suffer step losses that BOTH may end up retreating.

Also, would I be right in interpreting 14.5 to mean that both Attacking and Defending units involved in an assault may advance after an assault?

As in my example above, the British (Attacker) have retreated from the area from which the assault originated. Assuming the French (Defender) stand could they then advance into the area vacated by the British?
 
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Edgar Gallego
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Kappa_ap wrote:

The British, as the attacker, chooses to retreat to reduce the step losses to one. Per 14.4 (a) as the attacker retreated the defender (the French) also reduce their step losses to one.

Does this mean that the defender has by default chosen to stand, or rather not chosen to retreat per 14.41 and is required to check against it's morale value to see if it stands?


If one side retreats, the other stands, no morale check needed.

Kappa_ap wrote:

Also, when the British assaulting units retreated they left the unattached artillery units behind (as they did not take part in the assault). I would be correct in thinking that per 14.5 and 20.2, if the French then advance into the area vacated by infantry and cavalry, the artillery would be eliminated?


That's right. Also one note about the artillery:
If a player chooses Retreat voluntarily:
- Attached artillery can retreat with their long counters
- Horse artillery can always retreat
- All other artillery remains in place and are eliminated if enemy advances into the area.

If a Player chooses Stand and fails (is forced to retreat):
- Attached and not attached Artillery is left in the area, and eliminated if the enemy advances into.
- Exception: Horse artillery can always retreat
 
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Edgar Gallego
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Kappa_ap wrote:
I've seen another post here on BGG by Brien Miller that suggests that the French would still need to check to stand per 14.41 even if the British (Attacker) retreats.

So it is eminently possible that if both the Attacker and Defender suffer step losses that BOTH may end up retreating.

Also, would I be right in interpreting 14.5 to mean that both Attacking and Defending units involved in an assault may advance after an assault?

As in my example above, the British (Attacker) have retreated from the area from which the assault originated. Assuming the French (Defender) stand could they then advance into the area vacated by the British?


The revised rulebook will clarify that, only one side retreats. And right now, as it's written, only the attacker can advance.
 
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