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Subject: A couple quick rules questions rss

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craig tata
United States
Massachusetts
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Please note these are related to the basic game rules only.

1) Bene wins if they correctly predict the winning faction and round, what if that faction was part of an alliance? For instance, they say Hark in round 7, but in round 7 the imperial alliance (consisting of emperor, hark, and guild) wins. In that case, does Bene still win?

2) Emperor and Guild each have powers that collect them spice (shipment and bidding). If they are not being used in the game, does the spice just go to the bank instead?

3) Bidding, seen two variants on rules, not sure which is correct. One says to lay out the number of cards as people who CAN bid, the other says lay out the number of cards as people who INTEND to bid. Those aren't necessarily the same, so I'd like to know which is accurate.

4) Bidding, can one player buy more than one card during a single round?

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Robert Manning
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Sunnyvale
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MrSupernatural wrote:
Please note these are related to the basic game rules only.

1) Bene wins if they correctly predict the winning faction and round, what if that faction was part of an alliance? For instance, they say Hark in round 7, but in round 7 the imperial alliance (consisting of emperor, hark, and guild) wins. In that case, does Bene still win?
Yes, the Bene win.

Quote:
2) Emperor and Guild each have powers that collect them spice (shipment and bidding). If they are not being used in the game, does the spice just go to the bank instead?
Yes, the spice goes to the bank.

Quote:
3) Bidding, seen two variants on rules, not sure which is correct. One says to lay out the number of cards as people who CAN bid, the other says lay out the number of cards as people who INTEND to bid. Those aren't necessarily the same, so I'd like to know which is accurate.
One card is laid out for each player whose hand is not full.

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4) Bidding, can one player buy more than one card during a single round?
Yes.

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thanks
You're welcome!
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Klaude Thomas
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MrSupernatural wrote:
3) Bidding, seen two variants on rules, not sure which is correct. One says to lay out the number of cards as people who CAN bid, the other says lay out the number of cards as people who INTEND to bid. Those aren't necessarily the same, so I'd like to know which is accurate

Note that a player who held 4 treachery cards at the beginning of the Bidding Round can contrive to empty their hand during it, for example by casting a Truth Trance. They might do so in the hope of pipping the other players by unexpectedly becoming eligible to make a bid. Opinions are divided as to the correct way to play it!

One might take the words in VIII.A to be describing a continuous effect. Lit. "A player cannot bid for treachery cards if he already holds 4 treachery cards." Under this interpretation the rule operates via prevention: should a player come to hold fewer than 4 cards they would cease to be prevented from bidding. Consider the alternative wording "Only players who begin the Round with fewer than 4 treachery cards can bid." And also look at G. which is a rule in much the same vein that certainly is a continuous effect.

However, others believe that the test only occurs at the start of the Bidding Round. They put weight onto the words "can bid" in the line "players who can bid for treachery cards this round". If a card was not dealt for you because you held 4 treachery cards at that point, then you are not a player who can bid this round.

Read very strictly, I believe the latter position is better entailed by the rules. The former position allows the occasional gambit and in my view that creates additional interest.
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