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Subject: Auction Question rss

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Scott Russell
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First play last night, then ordered my own copy during Boulder's Saturday night special! cool

I wanted to confirm that we were playing the auction right.

We played that the first player (A) bid on a lot first and another player won, that A had to select from one of the other four auctions available without refill. But after A wins an auction, the spaces are all refilled. Then B (or next player that hasn't won an auction) picks lots to auction without refill, etc.

But after active player wins an auction, the lots are all refilled, and only then?

Assuming this is correct, could anyone speculater (or state authoritatively) why this "penalty" is inflicted? It seems that refilling after each auction would be more intuitive and wouldn't penalize the first player. (A position that doesn't seem to need penalizing.)
 
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Dave Kudzma
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It's to encourage players to buy a set of tiles.

If the first player could just choose a set, not buy it, then have it refilled it could be a HUGE advantage. They could potentially sit back and buy last if need be, thereby having control the whole auction phase.

It's to encourage the game to move along, change auctioneers, etc.

It's by no means a perfect mechanism, but it is what it is.
 
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Mark Mueller
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qzhdad wrote:
We played that the first player (A) bid on a lot first and another player won, that A had to select from one of the other four auctions available without refill. But after A wins an auction, the spaces are all refilled. Then B (or next player that hasn't won an auction) picks lots to auction without refill, etc.

That's right. Markets aren't refilled until some one else becomes the active player.

qzhdad wrote:

But after active player wins an auction, the lots are all refilled, and only then?

Note that the active player A could also pass without winning an auction and still bid later in the same round when another player C is active. By passing, player A forfeits the chance to initiate bidding or choose which market is up for auction.
 
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Scott Russell
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locusshifter wrote:
It's to encourage players to buy a set of tiles.

If the first player could just choose a set, not buy it, then have it refilled it could be a HUGE advantage. They could potentially sit back and buy last if need be, thereby having control the whole auction phase.

It's to encourage the game to move along, change auctioneers, etc.

It's by no means a perfect mechanism, but it is what it is.


By forcing a him to bid on the lot, it assures that he won't just pick the worst lot to clear it out with no bids or he'll be stuck with it. Or am I missing your point?
 
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Scott Russell
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mdmnd9294 wrote:
Note that the active player A could also pass without winning an auction and still bid later in the same round when another player C is active. By passing, player A forfeits the chance to initiate bidding or choose which market is up for auction.


Maybe I don't understand the rule, yet. So A could pass instead of putting a lot up for auction? That would definitely be different than how we read it.
 
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Mark Mueller
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Yes. That's in the rules. Read through the example. Player A could pass and still bid on a market this turn, but A looses the opportunity to initiate a bid. Also see the "Note" at the bottom of pg V:

Quote:
Note: Participating in an auction is never mandatory.
A player can pass on her opportunity to initiate a bid.
In this case although she can still join bidding rounds
initiated by other players, she has lost her
opportunity to initiate a bid for the rest of this turn.
 
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Scott Russell
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This would also mean that it's possible to not buy a set each turn. That's an interesting twist.
 
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