Eddie the Cranky Gamer
Ok, I know this is NOT in the English rules for Shogun. However, I'm wondering given the state of the rules in general (a bit of a confusing mess) if this is a choice by the designer or an oversight in printing the rules.
I know that
1) Wallenstein had revolt tokens on invading a neutral country
2) I've read in some places that some languages of the Shogun rules may include this rule, and
3) It makes a ton of thematic sense.
However, inexorably, it is not in the English rules.
So, 2 questions:
1) Was this rule accidentally left out of Shogun? Speculation, go!
2) Is it more fun to put this rule back in?
2. I just checked, and can't find it in the dutch, german and french rules.
3. It also makes a lot of sense not to place a revolt marker. The peasants are relieved that finally a warlord comes to protect them from bandit raids. Look! He even stations an army here!
I don't think it was accidental. I think they did it to make it more clear. Since Wallenstein also had another rule, that revolts against tax and rice only take place after two tokens are there. And that is the confusing rule. In Shogun it is easy, once a revolt token is there, a revolt takes place.
So if you put back one rule you should also put back the other one. Or else it gets really unbalanced.
I don't know if the winter revolt table has also changed, or else Wallenstein had really harsh winters.
I'm not sure how it works in the older game, but in Shogun you do have to defeat the locals when you invade a neutral territory. After that they don't mess with you unless you overtax them (which brings on revolt markers).