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MIL (1049)» Forums » Rules

Subject: New Born and Marriages Clarification rss

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Mat zo
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Hi,

After two games of this exellent game i have still some interogation about the marriages rules.

The way the rules text in english and French are writen, make one thing not clear for me.

When a knigh try to have a new born :

"If the knight who performed this action doesn’t have an heir, the newborn child will be his heir: flip the knight tile over. If the father owns a land or a castle, there will be a marriage (see Marriages)."

Ok this one is cristal clear but when i read this :


"If the knight who performed this action already has an heir, a new knight’s tile is placed in the next available space of the individual board showing the non-heir side. Take the knight token appropriate and put on the new knight tile. From this moment on, he will be treated as any other knight in the game."

Because the sentence "If the father owns a land or a castle, there will be a marriage (see Marriages)." is missing here, i'm not sure if in this condition (obtention of a new knight token in our fief) it's lead to a Marriage ?


And more :

"Recognize an illegimate son: Instead of rolling the die, the player can have a male heir automatically if he recognices an illegimate son. For this to happen, you should discard a Privilege or pay 1 Gold."

Cause the sentence "If the father owns a land or a castle, there will be a marriage (see Marriages)." is still missing here, i'm not sure if a Marriage happen if you recognize a bastard son for your knight (with a castle or a land)
 
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Firmino Martínez
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Quote:
Hi,

After two games of this exellent game i have still some interogation about the marriages rules.

The way the rules text in english and French are writen, make one thing not clear for me.

When a knigh try to have a new born :

"If the knight who performed this action doesn’t have an heir, the newborn child will be his heir: flip the knight tile over. If the father owns a land or a castle, there will be a marriage (see Marriages)."

Ok this one is cristal clear but when i read this :


"If the knight who performed this action already has an heir, a new knight’s tile is placed in the next available space of the individual board showing the non-heir side. Take the knight token appropriate and put on the new knight tile. From this moment on, he will be treated as any other knight in the game."

Because the sentence "If the father owns a land or a castle, there will be a marriage (see Marriages)." is missing here, i'm not sure if in this condition (obtention of a new knight token in our fief) it's lead to a Marriage ?

There is a marriage only if:
1. the new born is a heir (flip the knight tile over) and
2. the knight who performed this action have a land tile or a castle tile (nobody wants to marry a poor knight!).

So, if the knight who performed this action already has an heir (depicted in the knight tile) and a son is born (a new Knight tile) there is not a Marriage.

Quote:

"Recognize an illegimate son: Instead of rolling the die, the player can have a male heir automatically if he recognices an illegimate son. For this to happen, you should discard a Privilege or pay 1 Gold."

Cause the sentence "If the father owns a land or a castle, there will be a marriage (see Marriages)." is still missing here, i'm not sure if a Marriage happen if you recognize a bastard son for your knight (with a castle or a land)

A legitimated bastard is like any legitimate son. The only diference is that you get him without die roll.

 
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Mat zo
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ok thanks,

If you have to flip the knight tile of a knight with properties = Marriage (bastard or not)

If you not have to flip (had a new knight tile) = No Marriage (bastard or not)


 
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