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Subject: Event Cards: Adding Influence Before or After rss

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Dust Oyevsky
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I've tried scouring the Rulebook and FAQ, still can't confirm this:
If an event card allows you to place influence in country that you you previously did not have influence, and you choose to have the event occur before you use your OP points to place influence, is this newly placed influence now treated as though it had been there "At the start of the round" and thus available to add influence to it or it's surrounding countries? Or is considered after the start of the round and you are still limited to the countries that you had influence in before the event?

Example:
US plays card that allows them to place 1 influence in 7 countries in Western Europe that don't have USSR control, regardless of adjaceny rules. OP points allow the player to add 2 more influence to the board. If they did not have an adjacent country next to France, lets say, but the event put 1 in France, can the US player now add influence to France?

I'm sorry if this is worded in a terrible way, I was having a tough time running it through my head. This popped up while I was test playing the game and forgot which countries I had placed said 7 influence in, in the example, and which I already had influence in. Got a little confusing. Thanks in advance for anyones help on this!
 
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Hmmm, I'll try to parse your question...

First, cards can only be used for ops or the event by you. So if you as the US player are playing Marshall Plan, you can either use the event for placing one ip in seven countries, or use it for the 4ops. Not both.

If your opponent, as the USSR, plays Marshall Plan, whether he lets the event happen before or after he uses the 4 ops is irrelevant, the important take away is that you can place the 7ip one at a time in countries that are uncontrolled by the USSR.

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Adam Meledeo
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Yeah, you can't use both your event AND the ops from the card. Either or.
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Sam Carroll
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If I remember rightly, The Iron Lady, while a US event, does give the USSR influence in Argentina. Thus the USSR could play it, have the event occur first, and then use the ops to expand from Argentina.
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Evgeny Reznikov
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spartax wrote:
If I remember rightly, The Iron Lady, while a US event, does give the USSR influence in Argentina. Thus the USSR could play it, have the event occur first, and then use the ops to expand from Argentina.

No, he couldn't.

Rules, section 6.1.1 - Playing operations to place influence
Quote:
6.1.1 Influence markers are placed one at a
time. However, all markers must be placed
with, or adjacent to, friendly markers that
were in place at the start of the phasing
player’s Action Round.


Since both the event resolution and the influence placement are part of the same action round of the phasing player, he cannot use the Argentina influence as a base for expansion until the next player's action round.
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Sam Carroll
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OK, you got me. I hadn't thought that situation through.
 
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Dust Oyevsky
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Thanks so much guys! I'm a new player and appreciate the help! Here's what I've learned:

-If a player is playing a card with an event for his side he may spend the OP for influence points/coup/etc. OR he may choose for the event to occur, effectively ignoring the OP (unless related to the event)

-But, if a player is playing a card that is for his opponent's side, then he may use the OP like normal, after choosing when the event happens, the event occurs as though the opposing player had played it

This does clear up a good amount confusion for me, thanks so much!
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Dan Moore
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azuredarkness wrote:
spartax wrote:
If I remember rightly, The Iron Lady, while a US event, does give the USSR influence in Argentina. Thus the USSR could play it, have the event occur first, and then use the ops to expand from Argentina.

No, he couldn't.

Rules, section 6.1.1 - Playing operations to place influence
Quote:
6.1.1 Influence markers are placed one at a
time. However, all markers must be placed
with, or adjacent to, friendly markers that
were in place at the start of the phasing
player’s Action Round.


Since both the event resolution and the influence placement are part of the same action round of the phasing player, he cannot use the Argentina influence as a base for expansion until the next player's action round.


That seems rugged. I'd say that it could; it's not a million cards that could cause such a question . . . but back to that OP question: if the US player is using the Event, on Soviet play of Marshall plan, and the US player brings brings a country - - say France - - up to the level of Control: the Soviet player would pay the Control penalty for placing into France?

It's not the same as Iron Lady, sure, but if we're talking about status determined at the beginning of a phase, then the US didn't have control; and the Soviets could claim to be exempt from the control penalty . . . couldn't they?






 
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Adam Cirone
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catmando wrote:
if the US player is using the Event, on Soviet play of Marshall plan, and the US player brings brings a country - - say France - - up to the level of Control: the Soviet player would pay the Control penalty for placing into France?

It's not the same as Iron Lady, sure, but if we're talking about status determined at the beginning of a phase, then the US didn't have control; and the Soviets could claim to be exempt from the control penalty . . . couldn't they?


No, it just doesn't work like that, because the penalty for enemy control when placing influence isn't tied to the status at the beginning of the Action Round. Otherwise, it would be nearly impossible to "break control" of your opponent's countries; over-control would be impossible to counter without heavy assistance from events.
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Evgeny Reznikov
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catmando wrote:
but back to that OP question: if the US player is using the Event, on Soviet play of Marshall plan, and the US player brings brings a country - - say France - - up to the level of Control: the Soviet player would pay the Control penalty for placing into France?

It's not the same as Iron Lady, sure, but if we're talking about status determined at the beginning of a phase, then the US didn't have control; and the Soviets could claim to be exempt from the control penalty . . . couldn't they?

If the USSR chose to have the event occur first, and the US used the influence from it to gain control of a country, the USSR would then be paying 2-for-1 for the first (control breaking) point of influence placed in that country, yes.

Also, in regards to the Iron Lady, this is the only card I recall that causes this to occur, and whether it's "rugged" or not, the rules are unambiguous about the issue. We should probably stick to the same rules so that we're all playing the same game, although you're obviously free to play however you like.
 
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